Question:
You roll 3 numerical dice.
One is a 6 sided die (1-6)
One is a 4 sided die (1-4)
One is a 3 sided die (1-3)
If they are each rolled once, what is the probability at least one rolls a number 1.
I feel like the simple answer is gamblers fallacy, each event is independent.
But I also feel like there is a compound probability proof I'm completely forgetting.
Logically I'm compelled to think it's as simple as:
Probability of an event happening = Number of ways it can happen / Total number of outcomes
E.g. 3/13 or 23% of one die rolling a number 1
Anyone chime in?